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Wednesday, 28 September 2011

Jesus the Sinner

Listening to his supports you'd think Jesus was pure and free from the sin we are all supposed to have inherited along with our humanity.  Mary was free from sin, having been 'immaculately conceived', and was still  a virgin when he was born, and Jesus' father was God, so he wasn't contaminated by any inherited paternal  or maternal sins, so Jesus was free from sin, so we are told.

But was he?

Baptism of Jesus
(Looks like there was some difficulty pushing him under).
John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins

And it came to pass in those days, that Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized by John in Jordan.

Mark 1:4-9
So, if John was "preaching baptism of repentance for remission of sins" and part of that baptism was confession of sins, why did John need to baptize Jesus?

Obviously, the author of Mark thought Jesus was a sinner who needed to confess those sins and repent, and who are we to disagree... (Tweet this)





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10 comments:

  1. the freak that I am likes the (conspiracy) theory that Jesus got it on with the hottie Mary Magdalene, after all, he was part man, part human, right. I think it would be cool if it was true (and it very well might be) that after the supposed crucifixion, he survived, then he went to India (with his pretty red haired lady), studied Buddhism and then settled in France. Far fetched, but your basic average super baddass sexy brown Norther California hippie atheist bro dude can dream...right.

    Seriously, your blogging is tremendous the last couple of months. Please keep it up.

    Kriss

    ReplyDelete
  2. Jesus was said to have been baptized as an example to his followers. He was not being cleansed of sin, but showing his followers how to do so.

    ReplyDelete
  3. Where exactly was this said and by whom, please? There is no reference to it in the Bible and Mark is crystal clear on the purpose for which John baptised people in the Jordan.

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. 2 Corinthians 5:21...... read it

      Delete
    2. Understandably Anonymous

      "For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him." - 2 Corinthians 5:21

      It doesn't say what was claimed, in fact it directly contradicts part of it. Were you hoping no one would check?

      Delete
  4. "was said" == "I desperately want to believe" because what is written is ludicrous, isn't good enough and can't be believed so they need to make up their own story.

    That is what Christianity is: making things up that is acceptable as you go along because what is in the book is... so bad even Christians can't stomach it.

    ReplyDelete
  5. How did John The Baptist get Jesus under the water? Doesn't he just float on top?

    ReplyDelete
  6. Or, it was because he knew his real father was a Roman solider that his mother jumped on before her marriage. No one likes arranged marriages, you know.

    ReplyDelete
  7. If Jesus is God, doesn't that mean he boned his own mum, albeit immaculately?

    ReplyDelete
  8. Hi. COuld you tell me who the picture is by?

    ReplyDelete

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